Test Your NAPLEX® Knowledge

25 Practice Questions to Test Your NAPLEX® Knowledge

   

1. Lipitor is the #1 branded cholesterol drug. Which of the following statements concerning Lipitor is correct?

A. There are no significant drug interactions.
B. The generic name is rosuvastatin.
C. The maximum dose is 80 mg daily.
D. It must be taken with the evening meal.
E. It is safe to use in pregnancy.

2. A 22 year-old female with cystic fibrosis is being treated for a lung infection with TOBI. Which of the following statemenst is correct?

A. TOBI ampules are stored at room temperature.
B. Most lung infections in CF patients are caused by Staph aureus.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa are gram negative, anaerobic, spiral-shaped bacterium.
D. The patient will need a compressor and a nebulizer.
E. All of the above

3. Plavix is commonly used after PCI procedures and/or ACS. Which of the following statements concerning Plavix is correct?

A. It must be taken with food.
B. It is contraindicated with aspirin.
C. It is a glycoprotein IIb IIIa inhibitor.
D. The usual dose is 75 mg once daily.
E. The generic name is dipyridamole.

4. Which of the following acid-suppressing agents comes as a Solu-Tab (ODT) formulation?

A. Axid
B. Nexium
C. Prevacid
D. Prilosec
E. Protonix

5. Diovan is the top selling ARB. Which of the following statements concerning Diovan is correct?

A. It is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
B. The generic name is irbesartan.
C. It is pregnancy category B.
D. It can decrease serum potassium levels.
E. It should be used cautiously when combined with Yaz.

6. Lexapro is used commonly for depression and anxiety disorders. Lexapro is an isomer derived from the following drug:

A. Celexa
B. Escitalopram
C. Adderall
D. Fluoxetine
E. Lyrica

7. Which are common side effect(s) with venlafaxine therapy?

A. Headache
B. Insomnia
C. Anorexia
D. Nausea
E. All of the above

8. A 53 y/o patient in the hospital is getting Solu Medrol 40mg IV Q12h. The physician wants to send the patient home on an equivalent daily dose of prednisone. Which of the following would you recommend?

A. 100mg
B. 80mg
C. 400mg
D. 120mg
E. 140mg

9. Cymbalta is approved for all of the following indications except:

A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. Restless leg syndrome
C. Major Depressive Disorder
D. Fibromyalgia
E. Diabetic Neuropathic Pain

10. Nexium is a top-selling heartburn remedy. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Nexium can be recommended for occasional (as-needed) heartburn relief.
B. The generic name is lansoprazole.
C. Nexium can typically be substituted, with similar efficacy, with generic omeprazole or pantoprazole.
D. For optimal relief, it is best taken at bedtime.
E. Nexium can be crushed and mixed with applesauce.

11. When is the best time to take levothyroxine?

A. 1/2 hour before breakfast
B. With breakfast
C. With dinner
D. At bedtime
E. Anytime of day with food or a light snack

12. Levaquin has the following black-box warning:

A. Torsade be Pointes
B. Tendon Inflammation/Rupture
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Photosensitivity
E. Hypoglycemia

13. A patient is using Valtrex daily for recurrent herpes suppression. Choose the appropriate counseling statement:

A. She can safely have intercourse without fear of transmission of the virus to her partner.
B. The incidence of viral transmission is reduced, but not eliminated.
C. Valtrex will help reduce the spread of chlamydia.
D. Valtrex is a less expensive option than acyclovir.
E. Valtrex is useful in cases of acyclovir resistance.

14. Tamiflu counseling should include all of the following except:

A. The medicine should be started within 48 hours of onset of illness.
B. Continue treatment for 5 days (until all medicine is taken).
C. This medicine is not a substitute for the influenza vaccine.
D. You may feel confused, or have strange thoughts. If you notice any changes in your thinking or behavior, contact your physician as soon as possible.
E. Do not use if allergic to sulfa antibiotics.

15. An elderly gentleman has coronary heart disease. He uses the following medicines: clopidogrel, aspirin, lisinopril, Toprol XL and vardenafil. A physician called and asked if it is appropriate to begin Flomax therapy. Choose the appropriate response.

A. The use of Flomax is contraindicated.
B. Flomax can be used, but the patient will require careful monitoring for orthostasis and dizziness.
C. A safer option would be Cardura.
D. This drug is not appropriate; Sanctura should be used instead.
E. Flomax is not available in the U.S.

16. Choose the most common side effect from sildenafil therapy:

A. Headache
B. Rash
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Neuropathy
E. Vision Loss

17. A patient is going to begin Xalatan therapy, but finds it is not on her formulary. Which of the following medications would be an appropriate alternative?

A. Cosopt
B. Lumigan
C. Timolol XE
D. Vigamox
E. Doxapram

18. A patient with diabetes, hypertension and dyslipidemia has been using metformin 1000 mg BID for 5 months. Her A1C is currently 8.2%. Which of the following options is most appropriate?

A. Increase the metformin.
B. Add on pioglitazone.
C. Stop the metformin and begin Januvia therapy.
D. Add on Humalog, 10 u QHS.
E. Add on Apidra, 10 u QHS.

19. A patient is to begin Lantus therapy. The pharmacist will instruct the patient on insulin use. The following counseling point should be included:

A. When mixing with rapid-acting insulin, draw up the Lantus first.
B. When mixing with regular insulin, draw-up the regular insulin first.
C. Lantus does not cause hypoglycemia, and low blood sugar instruction is not required.
D. Lantus is usually dosed once daily, at bedtime.
E. Lantus should not be used with oral hypoglycemic medications.

20. A pharmacist is reviewing Advair Diskus counseling. Which of the following counseling points is incorrect?

A. Hold the Diskus in one hand and put the thumb of your other hand on the thumbgrip.
B. While holding firmly, shake the device for 5 seconds.
C. Push your thumb away from you as far as it will go until the mouthpiece appears and snaps into position.
D. Hold the Diskus in a level, flat position with the mouthpiece toward you. Slide the lever away from you as far as it will go until it clicks.
E. Before inhaling your dose, breathe out (exhale) fully while holding the Diskus level and away from your mouth.

21. A patient has an estimated creatinine clearance of 24 ml/min. Which of the following medications does NOT require a dosage reduction?

A. Gabapentin
B. Pregabalin
C. Metoclopramide
D. Piperacillin/Tazobactam
E. Linezolid

22. A pharmacist receives a prescription for Pulmozyme. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Pulmozyme?

A. Pulmozyme should be stored at room temperature at all times.
B. Pulmozyme is dornase alfa used to cleave DNA; thereby reducing mucous viscosity.
C. Pulmozyme can be mixed with other nebulized medications.
D. Pulmozyme is budesonide solution that should be taken twice per day.
E. Pulmozyme is contraindicated in patients allergic to Chinese hamster ovary cell products and is given via IM injection.

23. A 48 year-old female patient comes into the pharmacy. She states she usually doesn’t have headaches, but since she got stuck on a computer at work today, she developed eye strain and a headache. She asks if it is safe to take anything for the headache. Her only other chronic medication is lisinopril 20 mg once daily. You check her blood pressure, which is 144/78. Which is the best OTC recommendation?

A. Ibuprofen 600 mg as-needed, not to exceed twice daily.
B. Ibuprofen 600 mg as-needed, not to exceed three times daily.
C. Ibuprofen 800 mg as-needed, not to exceed twice daily.
D. Ibuprofen 800 mg as-needed, not to exceed three times daily.
E. Ibuprofen is not the best medication for this patient.

24. An order has been written for TPN. The order calls for Aminosyn 8.5%, 1000 ml. How many grams of amino acids will be included in this order?

A. 850
B. 8.5
C. 85
D. 8,500
E. 16

25. A pharmacist is preparing an IVPB that contains 100 ml ½ NS. How many grams of NaCl will be included in this order?

A. 9 g
B. 90 g
C. .45 g
D. 4.5 g
E. 450 g